Talk:Product of rings

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Why is it that an ideal in the direct product of a countable number of copies of R is a direct product of ideals in R? Surely, the ideal of sequences that are 0 almost everywhere is a counter-example.

i found this odd also. for reference, in hungerford, algebra p.135, there is an exercise which mentions that R_i must all have unity to fulfill this converse... --Thinkinglex (talk) 08:35, 29 September 2008 (UTC)Reply

Duh, because all rings have unity.

67.194.132.91 (talk) 20:40, 23 April 2010 (UTC)Reply