Talk:Mark (currency)

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after the Norman Conquest equalled 160 pennies = 2/3 of the pound sterling, or 13s. 4d., and therefore in Scotland 31/2d. English. Question: By the latter figure does the writer mean, £1, 11s 2d or threepence and a hapenny? (somebody might have transposed something) -- knoodelhed 11:11, 20 Nov 2003 (UTC)

Thr'pence ha'penny (3.5d) seems less likely that £1 11s 2d, if it was 13s 4d in England. What's the discrepancy between English and Scottish values, though? Some explanation could be good; the discrepancy looks odd to me and I'm a Brit with a relatively good understanding of British history, I'd assume a non-Brit would get rather confused! — OwenBlacker 12:33, Jun 22, 2004 (UTC)

Around the time of the Union, the exchange rate was 1 shilling Scots = 1 penny English. -- Arwel 16:39, 22 Jun 2004 (UTC)

Goodness, really?! When (and how) did parity come into force? That's something that should definitely be included in Wikipedia somewhere... :o)  OwenBlacker 16:43, Jun 22, 2004 (UTC)

I am about to try moving the article from Mark (English money) to Mark (money). As defined by the article itself the mark was also Scottish and European. Laurel Bush 12:02, 3 Mar 2005 (UTC).

If a mark was not a coin why did the Domesday Book say 10 1/2 silver marks paid to king for Chester? Gordon Emery

Are you sure "mark" is non-teutonic, I heard it might have come from the usage of "marking" a measure.

I suspect mark as money is closely related to hallmark and the idea that you should be able to trust a piece of metal as money if it is struck with a reputable mark or brand. Many metal alloys are struck now with the mark or marks of the Royal Mint. Laurel Bush 15:01, 8 Apr 2005 (UTC).

• Oppose --MacRusgail 18:28, 30 July 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I'm taking out of the introduction the sentence: The most valuable Mark were printed in 1908, today they would be worth up to $55 million U.S. a piece. It's completely unexplained what it's supposed to mean, apart from being nonsense. I suspect someone used the final conversion rate of the Deutsche Mark to convert prehyperinflation currency, ignoring the fact that they're completely separate currencies. -- Arwel (talk) 01:02, 14 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]

In Cambridge in mid 20th century (and who knows how long prior to that) undergraduates caught in some minor infraction would be fined half a mark or one mark. For example, an undergraduate caught by the proctors not wearing his academic gown in the streets of Cambridge after dark would be fined half a mark or 6/8.24.108.87.94 (talk) 06:07, 22 December 2008 (UTC)[reply]

There is a section that makes what appears to me to be some one-sided commentary about the economy of the Third Reich. For example, it is said that the war was "used to justify" economic controls -- as if this had been a secret agenda all along, and as if powers on the other side in the war hadn't done precisely the same. Some of the comments, like the allegation that war-booty was used to prop up the economy, seem to have very little to do with the discussion of the Mark as a currency. It seems to be just somebody with an opinion using the article as a convenient place for tangential pontificating.

A remarkable fact not mentioned is how stable the Mark was during the Third Reich, even retaining some value after the government had fallen. Your Buddy Fred Lewis (talk) 14:28, 24 December 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, every state uses war as an occasion to expand its control. If they all do it, is it wrong to mention that that one does it? —Tamfang (talk) 22:46, 21 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]

Is misplaced here. If there was a Wendischer Münzverein of hanseatic cities, which used the "Münzfuß" of the Lübsche Mark, then wendisch means the subdivision of the hanseatic ligue into "Quartiere" (quarters...). The name "Wendisches Quartier" ment the very cities around the hanseatic "capital" Lübeck (so-called Filial-Städte, meaning: Hamburg, Lüneburg, Lübeck, Wismar, Rostock, Stralsund, Greifswald a.s.o.). One has to keep in mind the old misconception of the "Wenden" as the historic "Wandalen", which had nothing to do with later interpretations of the ethnologic dualism between german and slavic. Danes and Swedes called the northgerman regions to be conquered soon "vendland", as they were named during the high-middle-ages. The term germanica slavica has nothing to do with the early 16th century. It is a construct (or a working theory) from a string of east-german medievalists, which seems to appeal to those, who aren't fed up with ethnological hypothesizing.--85.176.172.44 (talk) 02:19, 7 October 2015 (UTC)[reply]

No mention of the valuta mark which was some kind of convertible version of the East German mark ? 2A00:23C6:7F8A:BB00:2150:8E5B:CF7:A09A (talk) 13:50, 28 March 2020 (UTC)[reply]