[go: up one dir, main page]

Wiktionary:Tea room: difference between revisions

Content deleted Content added
→‎doesn't one: new section
Uncle G (talk | contribs)
→‎far be it from me: A recommendation
Line 3,850:
**That might be best. It would give a good result from a search perspective even without a redirect. And [[far be it]] is a "verb" phrase, as would be "far be it from X", but not "far be it from". [[User: DCDuring |DCDuring]] <small >[[User talk: DCDuring|TALK]]</small > 04:32, 16 July 2009 (UTC)
***Note also that [[for]] following "far be it" is a usage that goes back into the early 19th century, and that was employed by [[w:Jane Austen|Jane Austen]]. [[User:Uncle G|Uncle G]] 17:03, 16 July 2009 (UTC)
:::**** Older than that, even: b.g.c. pulls up an example from 1703 (http://books.google.com/books?id=Sf1TImE7aN0C&pg=PA443&dq=%22far+be+it+for+me%22). All told, “far be it from me to {{...}}” seems to be somewhat older, and at one point to have been many, ''many'' times more common than “far be it for me to {{...}}”, whereas today it seems to be only a few times more common. (Given that they're pronounced almost identically, and that they both make logical sense with the intended meaning — “let {{...}}-ing be distant from me” vs. “let my {{...}}-ing be distant” — it's not surprising that they would coexist.) —[[User: Ruakh |Ruakh]]<sub ><small ><i >[[User talk: Ruakh |TALK]]</i ></small ></sub > 02:23, 17 July 2009 (UTC)
 
***** I recommend putting that latter explanation in a usage note. It will be useful to readers, and there do exist assertions elsewhere that "for" is incorrect here.<p>Moreover the usage note already here could better explain the grammar of the following phrase if it simply noted that the "[[it]]" is a pronoun whose antecedent (as it were) is the noun phrase folowing. So the following noun phrase can be an infinite clause (e.g. "far be it from X to VERB Z") or a subordinate finite clause introduced by "[[that]]" (e.g. "far be it from X that Y VERB Z").<p>I also think that we're making a good argument for [[far be it]] as the article, since these are just the ordinary prepositional uses of "[[from]]" and "for". [[User:Uncle G|Uncle G]] 14:12, 18 July 2009 (UTC)
:::* Older than that, even: b.g.c. pulls up an example from 1703 (http://books.google.com/books?id=Sf1TImE7aN0C&pg=PA443&dq=%22far+be+it+for+me%22). All told, “far be it from me to {{...}}” seems to be somewhat older, and at one point to have been many, ''many'' times more common than “far be it for me to {{...}}”, whereas today it seems to be only a few times more common. (Given that they're pronounced almost identically, and that they both make logical sense with the intended meaning — “let {{...}}-ing be distant from me” vs. “let my {{...}}-ing be distant” — it's not surprising that they would coexist.) —[[User: Ruakh |Ruakh]]<sub ><small ><i >[[User talk: Ruakh |TALK]]</i ></small ></sub > 02:23, 17 July 2009 (UTC)
 
== [[주#Syllable]] ==